The food comes back up to his throat – what should he do?

I have a problem with my fasting, which is that at the beginning of the day the food comes back up from the stomach to the throat, and often it passes the throat. This is something that happens every day. What should I do? Do I have to repeat the fasts of those days? Please note that this happens every day in Ramadaan.

Praise be to Allaah.

If some of the food comes back up from the stomach to the throat, this is something that a person has no control over, rather it may be due to some medical problem or because the stomach is filled with food. 

This is called regurgitation and the one to whom that happens should expel it from his mouth if he can. But if he cannot expel it and it goes back to his stomach, there is no blame on him and it does not affect his fast. 

Ibn Hazm (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: 

The fast is not invalidated if a person regurgitates and it comes out of his throat, so long as he does not deliberately swallow it after it reaches his mouth and he is able to spit it out. End quote. 

Al-Muhalla (4/335). 

Using suppositories during the day in Ramadaan

What is the ruling on using suppositories during the day in Ramadaan, if the fasting person is sick?

Praise be to Allaah.

There is nothing wrong with using suppositories, which are placed in the back passage, if a person is sick, because this is not food or drink, and it is not like food or drink. 

Rather the Lawgiver has forbidden us to eat and drink, so whatever is like food and drink comes under the same ruling, and whatever is not like them whether in name or in how it is used, does not come under the ruling on food and drink. Its the responsibility of every Moslem in learning quran and read tajweed and we also have to teach our kids Quran and not only the Quran teaching we should let then begin to see the basic of Islam and why it was reviled you bet it was vilified and truth teaching of holy Quran and with tajweed quran we read Quran we can understand better all the responses that are demanded if we study koran from a qualified Quran tutor he will let you know truth center of Islam and why koran was reviled for it we should gain the ability of the Book with there translation and the context of when those verses were reviled and why and that is only potential when we persist in with not simply learning quran for beginners but gaining the information of Quran tafseer and one query that we all is required to ask our self that why we all are here in the world to do good acts or to do bad acts to promote correct or to promote incorrect and will we be answerable to any one after this life of not then the interrogation remains the identical that reasons why we are here in the world but if yes then whom we have to reply is there any Almighty All these reply exist when we go deep in to the Quran education do Quran reading and the so let us unite hands to full fill our task. We all must do quran memorization and listen to quran online when ever we have time to stay in touch

He declared that he was an apostate in order to avoid having to offer expiation, then he repented and regretted it

I have an issue I want to ask about, which has been troubling me for some years. When I was fifteen years old, I masturbated during the day in Ramadaan. After that I tried to mend my ways and I researched the ruling on the sin that I had committed, and I thought that I had to offer the expiation for having intercourse. Because I could not do that, I said to myself, I will become a kaafir, Allaah forbid, then I will become Muslim again, thus Allaah will forgive me and I will not have to offer the expiation. So like a fool I said, “Now I am a kaafir and tomorrow I will become Muslim.” Now I am thirty years old and I still think of that incident. Every time I remember it I ask Allaah to forgive me and I bear witness that there is no god but Him and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. All the time I pray and fast, until now, praise be to Allaah. But should the hadd punishment, which is execution, be carried out on me so that Allaah will accept my repentance?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

The Shaytaan keeps on making falsehood appear attractive and gradually makes a person fall into the worst of evil deeds and the gravest of major sins, namely shirk (associating others with Allaah), thinking that he is doing himself a favour. How can a person try to avoid fasting for two consecutive months by disbelieving in Allaah the Almighty, when Allaah has forbidden Paradise to the one who meets Him as a kaafir? The one who does that is like one who jumps out of the frying pan into the fire. He flees from one thing and falls into something that is far worse. 

The trick did not benefit him by relieving him of what was obligatory upon him, because it is a haraam trick, indeed it is the worst of all haraam things. The basic principle according to the scholars is that a trick does not waive an obligation or make something haraam permissible. Can a person be sure that if he commits this major sin, Allaah will give him time to repent and come back? Is it not possible that the last moments of his life may be when he has announced his kufr, Allaah forbid? Then he will be one of those whose deeds are lost in this world and in the Hereafter, and such are the dwellers of the Fire in which they will abide forever.  

Does he not fear that Allaah will punish him for this evil action by preventing him from repenting and coming back to Islam? 

“So when they turned away (from the path of Allaah), Allaah turned their hearts away (from the Right Path). And Allaah guides not the people who are Faasiqoon (rebellious, disobedient to Allaah)”

[al-Saff 61:5] 

To sum up: The one who has done this has done something serious that makes the flesh of the believers crawl. Praise be to Allaah Who has enabled you to repent. We hope that Allaah will accept your repentance and forgive you your sin. 

Part of perfecting your repentance is to do a great deal of righteous deeds, remembering Allaah (dhikr), reading Qur’aan, asking for forgiveness, acquiring knowledge and teaching it, giving charity, calling people to Allaah, etc. There are many kinds of good deeds, so strive hard and may Allaah forgive you. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“And verily, I am indeed forgiving to him who repents, believes (in My Oneness, and associates none in worship with Me) and does righteous good deeds, and then remains constant in doing them (till his death)”

[Ta-Ha 20:82] 

Secondly: 

The punishment for the one who apostatizes from Islam is death, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever changes his religion, execute him.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari (2017). 

The majority of scholars (including the Hanafis, Shaafa’is and Maalikis) are of the view that this punishment is waived in the case of one who repents and comes back to Islam, which is what applies in your case. 

See al-Mughni (9/18) and Sharh Muslim by al-Nawawi (12/208). 

Thirdly: 

With regard to the ruling on masturbating during the day in Ramadaan, it invalidates the fast and what you have to do is make up that day only, not offer the expiation for having intercourse. In the answer to question no. 50632 we have explained that the expiation for breaking the fast is only required in the case of intercourse.

She used to do the “secret habit” when fasting, out of ignorance

I am sending you this letter on behalf of my friend who needs someone to advise her. When she was a small child she was abused by one of her father’s friends who used to come and wait for him, and he forced her to be intimate with him when she was five years old, and she thought that this was something new, but he must have been a pervert. This led to her doing that all her life, without realizing what it is. Is that what is called the “secret habit”? This need would come to her when she was fasting and she would do it. When she does it she feels compelled to do it, because that is what she had been accustomed to all her life. Are the fasts of those days not valid? Is the expiation only to fast, since she did not know anything that was called the secret habit?
Please pray for healing for her. 
My question is: 
1 – How can she expiate for committing this sin whilst fasting?
2 – How can she be healed of this thing?
3 – She recites Qur’aan before she sleeps but feels that she needs to do that.  
She is 34 years old and is not married.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

We ask Allaah to forgive and pardon your friend, and to heal her from this disease, and to bless her with a righteous husband and righteous offspring, for He is Able to do that, may He be exalted. 

Secondly: 

What her father’s friend did is a serious offence and a major crime against this child. He is an evil pervert who has wronged both father and daughter. We ask Allaah to keep us safe and sound. There is no sin on her for what happened to her, because she was not accountable at that time.  

Wise people learn a lesson from such calamities. A man should be careful about the friends to whom he entrusts his secrets and his household. Some of them may appear to be sincere friends, but in fact they are among the devils of mankind. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) advised us of that when he said: “Do not keep company with anyone but a believer and do not let anyone but a pious person eat your food.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi (2395), classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi. 

Thirdly: 

What is meant by the “secret habit” or masturbation is playing with the private parts and provoking desire to the point of climax, whether that is using the hand or some other means. This is an evil habit and a haraam action. The evidence for its being haraam is explained in the answer to question no. 329, which also includes suggestions for treating this disease. 

Fourthly: 

If a person does the “secret habit” whilst fasting, and semen is emitted, then his fast is invalidated according to the majority of scholars, but if he was unaware that that invalidates the fast, is his fast invalidated and does he have to make it up? 

There is a difference of opinion among the fuqaha’ on this point. A group of scholars, including Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) are of the view that it does not invalidate his fast. This view was also favoured by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him). You will find this explained in more detail in the answer to question no. 50017. 

This sister should pray a great deal for forgiveness and do a lot of acts of worship, and she should avoid haraam things and adhere to righteousness, so that Allaah may forgive her, as Allaah has promised (interpretation of the meaning): 

“And verily, I am indeed forgiving to him who repents, believes (in My Oneness, and associates none in worship with Me) and does righteous good deeds, and then remains constant in doing them (till his death)”

[Ta-Ha 20:82] 

Fifthly: 

Marriage – as is the case with all of a person’s affairs – is subject to the decree of Allaah, and it is not known what is better, delaying it or hastening it. A person has to accept Allaah’s decree and submit to it, and follow the means that lead to provision and relief from distress, which include making du’aa’ and praying and obeying Allaah. See also question no. 21234. 

May Allaah help us all to do that which He loves and which pleases Him. 

And Allaah knows best.

She is not sure whether her prayer and fasting are valid

I feel ashamed to ask this question because of the abhorrence of what I used to do, and I do not even like to mention it.
 A few years ago I used to do two horrible things. The first is that a female relative and I used to fondle one another and we continued to do that for a while, then we stopped. The second is that I used to mistreat the young son of our neighbours; I used to hit him time after time and make him kiss me or touch part of my body. I do not even like to mention these things because it makes me feel that I am bad. I really regret having done these things.  I have a number of questions. 
1- Do I have to fast the days on which I did those things, although I did not know that they invalidate my fasting and prayers?
2- Do I also have to repeat the prayers?
3- I do not know if any fluid was emitted or not.
4- I am confused and uncertain, and I do not remember if I did those things in Ramadaan or not?
5- If I have to fast, how can I work out the number of days? I tried hard to work it out but I do not remember exactly when I did those things.
6- When does a girl become accountable for her fasting? Is it after she reaches puberty? I mean, is it after she gets her monthly period for the first time?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

We praise Allaah for having enabled you to repent from these haraam deeds, and we ask Allaah to accept your repentance. 

Secondly: 

You do not have to make up any of the prayers or fasts, for the following reasons: 

1-     You did not know that this would invalidate your fasting and prayers. If a person does something haraam without knowing that it is forbidden, then he may be excused and does not deserve to be punished for this sin. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And there is no sin on you concerning that in which you made a mistake, except in regard to what your hearts deliberately intend. And Allaah is Ever Oft‑Forgiving, Most Merciful” [al-Ahzaab 33:5]. Ignorance is a kind of mistake, because the one who is unaware does not deliberately commit sin. See the answers to questions no.50017 and 45648.

2-     You are not certain that any fluid was emitted. If a Muslim does an act of worship, the basic principle is that it is judged to be valid, so long as he is not certain that it was not valid. Merely doubting does not invalidate an act of worship once it has been done. 

Thirdly: 

With regard to a girl becoming accountable for fasting and other Islamic rulings, that happens when she reaches puberty, and a girl reaches puberty when one of four signs occur: 

1-     Reaching the age of fifteen

2-     Growth of coarse hair around the private part

3-     Emission of maniy (fluid emitted at climax)

4-     Menstruation. 

It is not essential that all of these happen at once, rather one sign is sufficient to establish that puberty has been reached. 

See also the answer to question no. 21246. 

We ask Allaah to enable you to do all that is good. And Allaah knows best.

She is pregnant and started bleeding – should she break her fast?

I am pregnant and I started bleeding during the day in Ramadaan. I went to the doctor and she did an internal exam and gave me an injection to stabilize the pregnancy. She also took a blood sample from me. Is my fast still valid? Or is it invalidated by any of these things?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The things mentioned – the internal exam, the injection to stabilize the pregnancy and giving a blood sample, do not break the fast, because they are not things that are known to break the fast, nor are they similar to those things.  

With regard to bleeding, the scholars differed as to whether a pregnant woman who bleeds is regarded as menstruating or not. 

In the answer to question no. 23400 we stated that she is regarded as menstruating if that continues to occur at the usual time of her menses, at the usual time of the month and for the usual number of days. 

But if that happens at a time other than her usual time of menses, or if her periods stopped for a month then she began to bleed in the second month, then it is not regarded as menses, so it does not affect the fast and your fast is valid in sha Allah. 

And Allaah knows best.

Emission of semen without pleasure

I suffer from emission of semen during the day in Ramadaan whilst fasting, without any wet dream or masturbation. Does this have any effect on my fasting?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If the matter is as described, then emission of semen without any feelings of pleasure on your part during the day in Ramadaan does not have any effect on your fasting, and you do not have to make up those days. 

And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. 

Ruling on husband and wife playing while fasting

I have a question concerning fasting, during the fast is it permissable to say I love u to a husband, My husband asked me to say it during fast and I said to him that it is not permissable, he said it is allowed?

Praise be to Allaah.

There is nothing wrong with a man playing with his wife, or a wife with her husband, by saying words while fasting, on the condition that there is no danger of either of them climaxing. If there is the danger that they may reach climax, as in the case of one who has strong desires and who fears that if he plays with his wife his fast may be broken by his ejaculating, then it is not permissible for him to do that, because he is exposing his fast to the risk of being broken. The same applies if he fears that he may emit prostatic fluid (madhiy). (al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/390). 

The evidence that it is permissible to kiss and play with one’s wife, if one is sure that there is no risk of reaching climax, is the report narrated by al-Bukhaari (1927) and Muslim (1106) from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) who said: “The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to kiss and touch (his wives) while he was fasting, and he was the most in control of his desires.’” In Saheeh Muslim (1108) it is narrated from ‘Amr ibn Salamah that he asked the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), “Can a fasting person kiss (his wife)?” The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “Ask her” – meaning Umm Salamah – and she told him that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to do that. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: “With regard to things other than kissing that may lead to intercourse, such as embracing and the like, we say that the ruling on them is the same as the ruling on kissing, and there is no difference between them.” (al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/434). 

Based on the above, your simply saying to your husband, “I love you,” or his saying that to you, does not affect your fast. And Allaah knows best.

Does wearing lipstick when fasting break the fast?

What is the ruling on wearing lipstick during the day in Ramadaan? Does it break the fast? Please note that some lipsticks have a slight taste and some have no taste; some types of lipstick may be dry and some may be moist.

Praise be to Allaah.

All kinds of preparations that are put on the outside of the body, whether they are absorbed through the skin or not, and whether they are for treatment, moisturizing, beautification or any other purpose, do not break the fast unless they are swallowed by the fasting person.  

The mere fact that it has a taste does not affect the fast so long as one does not swallow anything. 

Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (15/260): 

What is the ruling on women using kohl and some cosmetics during the day in Ramadaan? Do these things break the fast or not? 

He replied: 

Kohl does not break the fast of men or women according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, but it is better to use it at night if one is fasting. 

The same applies to soaps, creams etc that are used to beautify the face and are applied to the surface of the skin, including henna, makeup and the like. There is nothing wrong with using them for one who is fasting, but makeup should not be used if it will cause harm to the face. And Allaah is the source of strength. End quote. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on a fasting person using ointment to treat dryness of the lips. 

He replied: 

There is nothing wrong with a person using ointment to moisturise the lips or nose, or moistening them with water, or with a cloth and the like, but he should avoid anything that could reach the throat. But if anything reaches the throat without him intending it to, there is no sin on him, just as if he rinses his mouth and some water reaches his throat by accident, his fast is not invalidated by that. End quote. 

Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (19/224). 

Shaykh Ibn Jibreen (may Allaah preserve him) said in Fataawa ‘Ulama’ Balad al-Haraam (201): 

There is nothing wrong with applying creams to the body when fasting if there is a need for that, because the cream only reaches the surface of the skin and does not enter the body. Even if it is absorbed by the pores it is not regarded as breaking the fast. End quote. 

And Allaah knows best.

Her period lasts all month because of a weakness in her reproductive glands

There is a woman in my family who has her period all month because she suffers from a weakness in her reproductive glands. Now she is undergoing treatment but that happens to have coincided with Ramadaan. She is wondering what she should do –should she fast?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If the bleeding lasts all month then she is experiencing istihaadah (irregular non-menstrual vaginal bleeding) and she should refer to her regular cycle if she used to have a regular cycle before that, and stop praying etc during the time that was her regular period, then she should do ghusl and pray and fast for the rest of the month even if she is still bleeding. If she did not have a regular cycle or she has forgotten it, then she should distinguish the types of blood if she can. Menstrual blood (hayd) and non-menstrual blood (istihaadah) may be distinguished by colour, smell and thickness; menstrual blood is black or dark, and has an unpleasant smell, and it is thick, unlike the blood of istihaadah. 

The days on which the blood has the characteristics of menstrual blood are menses, and on the other days she is regarded as “pure”, so she should pray and fast. 

If she cannot distinguish different types of blood, then she should stop praying etc for six or seven days, because that is the usual length of menses for women, then she should do ghusl and pray and fast. 

Among the reports of the Sunnah which speak of istihaadah and say that the woman should refer to her previous cycle – if she used to have a known cycle – is the report narrated by al-Bukhaari (319) from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her), that Faatimah bint Abi Hubaysh asked the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): I suffer from istihaadah and I do not become pure; should I stop praying? He said: No, that is just a vein. But stop praying for the number of days that you used to menstruate, then do ghusl and pray.” 

Among the reports that speak of differentiating between types of blood is that narrated by al-Nasaa'i (215) and Abu Dawood (304) from Faatimah bint Abi Hubaysh, that she suffered from istihaadah and the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to her: “If it is menstrual blood then it is black and recognizable, so refrain from praying, then when it is the other type, do wudoo’, for that is from a vein.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Nasaa’i. 

Among the reports which speak of the woman who has istihaadah stopping prayer for six or seven days if she did not have a regular cycle or she cannot distinguish between types of blood is the report narrated by al-Tirmidhi (128) and Abu Dawood (287) from Hamnah bint Jahsh who said: I used to suffer istihaadah, bleeding heavily. I came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to ask him and tell him about that. I said: O Messenger of Allaah, I suffer istihaadah, bleeding heavily. What do you command me to do? It is keeping me from fasting and praying. He said: “That is only a kick from the shaytaan, so count your menses as six or seven days, which is something between you and Allaah, then wash yourself and when you see that you have become pure and you are certain of it, then pray for twenty-four or twenty-three days, and fast and pray. That will suffice you, so do what other women do with regard to their menses and purification.” 

Al-Tirmidhi said: I asked Muhammad [al-Bukhaari] about this hadeeth and he said:  It is a hasan saheeh hadeeth. Ahmad ibn Hanbal said likewise, it is a hasan saheeh hadeeth. 

And Allaah knows best.Its the responsibility of every Moslem in learning quran and tajweed and we also must teach our kids Quran and not only the Quran teaching we should let then be aware of the basic of Islam and why it was reviled you bet it was railed and truth teaching of holy Quran and with tajweed quran we read Quran we can understand better all the responses that are called for if we study koran from a qualified Quran tutor he will let you know verity heart of Islam and why koran was reviled for it we should gain the information of the Holy Writ with there translation and the context of when those verses were reviled and why and that is only potential when we keep on with not simply learning quran for beginners but gaining the ability of Quran tafseer and one enquiry that we all is needed to ask our self that why we all are here in the world to do good acts or to do bad human activity to promote correct or to promote incorrect and will we be answerable to any one after this life of not then the inquiry remains the exact that reasons why we are here in the world but if yes then whom we have to respond is there any God Almighty All these response exist when we go deep in to the Quran education do Quran reading and the so let us connect hands to full fill our task. We all must do quran memorization and listen to quran online when ever we have time to stay in touch

Ruling on nose drops for one who is fasting

What is the ruling on using nose drops during the day in Ramadaan?.

Praise be to Allaah.

It is proven that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi (788) and classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’al-Ghaleel (935). 

This hadeeth indicates that it is not permissible for the fasting person to let water reach his throat via the nose. 

Based on that, if the nose drops are small in amount such that they will not reach the throat, then there is nothing wrong with that, but if they do reach the throat and can be tasted, then the fast is invalidated and has to be made up. 

Shaykh Ibn Baaz said:  The same applies to eye drops and ear drops. They do not break the fast according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, but if he finds the taste of the drops in his throat, he should make up the fast in order to be on the safe side, but it is not obligatory, because these are not openings through which food and drink enter the body. But nose drops are not permissible, because the nose is an opening through which food and drink may enter the body. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” The one who does that has to make up the fast because of this hadeeth and similar reports, if he finds the taste of that in his throat. End quote. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in Fataawa Ramadaan (p. 511): If nose drops reach the stomach or the throat, then they break the fast, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, according to the hadeeth of Laqeet ibn Sabrah: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” So it is not permissible for the fasting person to put drops in his nose that can reach his stomach or his throat, but as for nose drops that will not reach them, they do not break the fast. 

With regard to eye drops – and also using kohl – and ear drops, they do not break the fast of the fasting person. End quote. 

Based on this, the fasting person should not use nose drops unless it is too difficult for him to go without them, in which case he should use them but he should be careful not to let any of that reach his throat. If he swallows any of that he should make up that day. 

If he knows that he cannot help swallowing some of them, then it is not permissible for him to use them unless his sickness is so bad that it is permissible for him not to fast, which is if fasting will cause him harm or unbearable hardship. See also questions no. 50555 and 38532. 

And Allaah knows best.

If a person wants to cancel his intention whilst doing wudoo’, praying or fasting

The great scholar al-Sa’di says in al-Fataawa al-Sa’diyyah (p. 228): Cancelling one’s intention with regard to acts of worship is of two types: one which does not have any effect, which is after the act of worship has been completed. … The second is cancelling the intention for the acts of worship when one is still doing it. … This means that the act of worship is not valid. 
Does this mean that if it occurs to me to break an obligatory fast, my fast becomes invalid? What if that occurs to me but I do not form the intention to break my fast, is that o.k.? What is the ruling on that? Similarly in the case of wudoo’, if in the middle of it I begin to doubt whether there is some urine there, for example, then I do not find any. Sometimes I form the intention to stop doing wudoo’, then I go back and complete it after not finding anything. Should I start again from scratch because I stopped intending wudoo’ in this case?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If a person forms the intention to stop doing an act of worship whilst he is doing it, it becomes invalid. No exception is made except in the case of Hajj and ‘umrah, which do not become invalid if the intention is cancelled or even if a person declares that he is going to stop. Rather the muhrim remains in ihraam until he has completed the rituals or he exits ihraam because of being prevented from continuing.  

It says in al-Mughni (1/278): If he started his prayer with a sound intention, then he forms the intention to stop praying and exit from it, then it becomes invalid. This was the view of al-Shaafa’i. End quote. 

It says in Zaad al-Mustanqi’ in the chapter on prayer: If he decides to end his prayer whilst praying or he becomes hesitant, then his prayer is invalidated. In the chapter on fasting he said: The one who forms the intention to break the fast has broken the fast. 

But Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh that hesitating about ending the prayer does not make the prayer invalid. See: al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (1/486). An example of hesitating is if he hears someone knocking at the door, and he wonders whether he should stop praying or carry on? 

Thus it is clear that if a person decides to stop the act of worship, it becomes invalid, but if that was simply a thought that crossed his mind, it does not invalidate the act of worship. 

Based on this, if the idea of stopping the fast simply occurs to one, it does not invalidate the fast until he decides and forms the intention to break the fast.  

Similarly, if whilst doing wudoo’ he becomes uncertain as to whether urine has come out of him, and he pauses and looks, but does not intend to stop doing wudoo’, and he does not find anything, then his wudoo’ is not invalidated. 

Similarly if he intends to stop doing wudoo’ his wudoo’ is invalidated, and it is not permissible for him to complete it, rather he must start all over again. 

It says in al-Insaaf (1/151): If he cancels his intention whilst purifying himself, what he has already done is invalidated, according to the correct view. This was the view favoured by Ibn ‘Aqeel and by al-Majd in his commentary. And it was said that what has already been done is not invalidated thereby; this was stated by al-Musannaf in al-Mughni. End quote. 

But one must beware of waswasah, because the shaytaan may come to a person and make him think that something has come out of him, and the person may get carried away with that and hardly be able to do any act of worship without doubting about it, which may cause him hardship and distress. Please see question no.62839. 

And Allaah knows best. 

Effect of lying on fasting

If a person who is fasting gets leave by telling his work that he is going for ‘Umrah, and this is not true, and he follows that by showing them a forged visa, what is the ruling on his fasting and prayer?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If he takes leave based on his saying that he is going for ‘Umrah, and in fact he does not intend to go, then this is lying. If that results in him getting leave to which he is not entitled, then the salary that he gets for this period is haraam wealth and is not permissible for him. 

The one who does that has to repent to Allaah and go back to work.

With regard to the effect that has on his fasting and prayer, they are valid, but it indicates that he is not doing them as Allaah enjoined. If he was really praying as Allaah has enjoined, then his prayer would be preventing him from doing evil deeds, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“Verily, As‑Salaah (the prayer) prevents from Al‑Fahsha’ (i.e. great sins of every kind, unlawful sexual intercourse) and Al‑Munkar (i.e. disbelief, polytheism, and every kind of evil wicked deed)”

[al-‘Ankaboot 29:45] 

Undoubtedly sins such as lying, deceiving, swearing, insulting others etc detract from the reward of the one who is fasting, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not give up false speech and acting upon it and ignorant conduct, Allaah has no need of his giving up his food and drink.”  Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 6057. 

It was narrated by al-Tabaraani in al-Mu’jam al-Sagheer and al-Mu’jam al-Awsat with the wording: “Whoever does not give up obscene talk and lying, Allaah has no need of his giving up his food and drink.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Targheeb wa’l-Tarheeb. 

False speech has also been interpreted as referring to lying. This points to the abhorrence of lying when fasting, and shows that he is exposing his fast to rejection and lack of acceptance. 

It says in al-‘Awn al-Ma’bood: “If he does not give up” means, if he does not refrain from. “False speech” means lying. “Allaah has no need” – Ibn Battaal said: This does not mean that he is enjoined to stop fasting, rather what it means is a warning against false speech and the other things mentioned. … Ibn al-Muneer said: Rather it is an indication that it will not be accepted. Ibn al-‘Arabi said: What this hadeeth means is that he will not be rewarded for his fasting … This hadeeth was quoted as evidence to show that that these actions detract from the reward of fasting. End quote. 

See also the answer to question no. 50063. 

And Allaah knows best.

Emission of maniy without desire does not invalidate the fast

Maniy comes out of me every day during the month of Ramadan, which prevents me from fasting. Please note that this does not happen on ordinary days. Is this because of weakness of faith? Please note that I do not have any sickness. What should I do, especially since the blessed days of Ramadan go by without me fasting? Please note: I went for ‘Umrah a month ago and the same thing happened. I hope you can advise me.

Praise be to Allaah.

It is not clear to us what you mean by saying “Maniy comes out of me every day during the month of Ramadan.” 

1.     If what is meant is that you have a wet dream and maniy is emitted as a result, that does not affect the fast, because it is not under a person's control.

2.     If what is meant is that maniy comes out whilst you are awake without you doing anything, rather it comes out by itself and you are certain that it is maniy, then in most cases this results from sickness. The majority of scholars – Hanafis, Maalikis and Hanbalis – are of the view that this does not necessitate ghusl, and this is the correct view. See the answer to question number 84409. The fast is not invalidated by the emission of this maniy, because it is involuntary and is beyond a person's control.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he masturbates with his hand, then he has done a haraam action, but he is fast is not invalidated by it unless he ejaculates. If he does ejaculate, then his fast is invalidated. But if he ejaculates without desire, such as a person from whom maniy or madhiy comes out because of sickness, there is no blame on him because it came out without desire, and is similar to urinary incontinence; and because it came out without him choosing that or causing it, so it is like a wet dream. End quote from al-Mughni (3/21).

To sum up: if maniy comes out without any action on the part of the fasting person, whether by using his hand or by intimacy or repeated looking, then his fast is not invalidated. Usually when maniy comes out in this manner, it is due to sickness or disease.

3.     With regard to the one who masturbates or causes maniy to be emitted by his hand, or by repeatedly looking at that which provoked his desire, this does invalidate his fast, as well as being a major sin, because he has committed two haraam actions, the first of which is masturbation and the second is deliberately breaking the fast during the day in Ramadan. This is a grave major sin concerning which there is a warning as was narrated by Ibn Khuzaymah (1986) and Ibn Hibbaan (7491) from Abu Umaamah al-Baahili (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said: I heard the Messenger of Allaah (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) say: “Whilst I was sleeping, two men came to me and took hold of my upper arm, and brought me to a rugged mountain. They said: ‘Climb up.’ I said: ‘I cannot do it.’ They said: ‘We will make it easy for you.’ So I climbed up until I was at the top of the mountain. There I heard loud voices. I said: ‘What are these voices?’ They said: ‘This is the screaming of the people of Hell.’ Then I was taken and I saw people suspended by their ankles, with the corners of their mouths torn and pouring with blood. I said: ‘Who are these?’ They said: ‘These are the people who broke their fast before it was time to do so.’” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Mawaarid al-Zam’aan, no. 1509.

4.     You may be confused about the matter so that you do not distinguish between maniy and madhiy/wadiy; both of the latter do not invalidate the fast. 

This is how to distinguish between these things:  

Madhiy is a thin, clear liquid which comes out during foreplay or when thinking of intercourse or desiring it or looking; a person may be unaware of it. 

Wadiy is a thick white liquid which comes out in white drops, usually after urinating. Both of them are najis (impure) and invalidate wudoo', but the najaasah (impurity) of madhiy is less serious and it is sufficient to sprinkle water on it, which means making water reach the entire area that it got onto, without squeezing or rubbing. 

Ghusl is not required in these two cases and the fast is not invalidated by them. 

As for maniy, it is a white liquid that is emitted with forceful gushing, followed by lassitude. When it is wet it smells like dough or the spadix of a palm tree, and when it is dry it smells like egg whites. It is taahir (pure) but it necessitates ghusl, except if it is emitted whilst awake without desire, as stated above, in which case it does not require ghusl. 

With regard to that happening to you when you were travelling for ‘umrah, if that occurred during a wet dream whilst you were sleeping, then you have to do ghusl and it is not permissible for one who is junub to enter al-Masjid al-Haraam or to circumambulate the Ka’bah. If that happened during the day without desire, then you only have to do wudoo’. 

We hope we have answered your question. If there is still anything that you don't understand, then ask again and we will be happy to help you. 

And Allaah knows best.

If a person consumes something that breaks the fast due to ignorance of the ruling or of the time

I read your answer to question no. 80425. I had the same problem as the brother who asked the question, but the difference between me and him is that if the food reached my throat, I would swallow it, thinking that it did not break the fast, because this food came from the stomach and I sent it back to where it came from (out of ignorance on my part). Then I read that I have to make up those days, but I do not remember how many days I did that, because that was in the past. Now I have stopped this habit. What should I do?.

Praise be to Allaah.

So long as you did not know that swallowing this food breaks the fast, then you do not have to make up those days, because ignorance of things that break the fast is a valid excuse, according to the correct view. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: Things that break the fast and that may be done voluntarily, do not break a person’s fast unless three conditions are met: 

The first condition is that he is aware, and the opposite of awareness is ignorance. 

So if a person eats something and he is ignorant, then he does not have to make up that day. Ignorance is of two types:  

(i)                Ignorance of the ruling, such as if a person vomits deliberately but he is not aware that vomiting breaks the fast. In this case he does not have to make up the fast because he is ignorant. The evidence that the one who is ignorant of the ruling does not break his fast is the report that is proven in al-Saheehayn from the hadeeth of ‘Adiyy ibn Haatim (may Allaah be pleased with him), who said that he put two ropes – one black and one white – beneath his pillow. These were ropes of the type used to hobble camels. He started looking at them, and when he could distinguish between the white rope and the black one, he stopped eating and drinking. The next day he went to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and told him about that. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to him: “Your pillow must be very wide, if the white thread and the black thread are beneath your pillow. Rather that is the blackness of the night and the whiteness of the day” But the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not tell him to make that day up, because he had been unaware of the meaning of the verse. 

(ii)              Ignorance of the time. For example, if a person thinks that dawn has not yet broken, then he finds out that it had broken. He does not have to make up that day. Similarly if a person breaks the fast at the end of the day thinking that the sun has set, then he finds out that it had not set, he does not have to make up that day either. The evidence for that is the report narrated by al-Bukhaari from Asma’ bint Abi Bakr (may Allaah be pleased with her) who said: We broke our fast on a cloudy day at the time of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), then the sun came out. The point here is that if the fast was invalidated, it would have been obligatory to make it up, and if it had been obligatory to make it up, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would have commanded them to do that. If he had ordered them to make it up, this would have reached us because it is part of preserving sharee’ah. As there is no report that says that the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) told them to do that, and as he did not tell them to do that, it is known that the fast was not invalidated, so it does not have to be made up in this case. But as soon as a person realizes what the situation is, he must stop eating and drinking, so that even if there is a morsel in his mouth, he has to spit it out. End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (19/116). 

Then he mentioned the second and third conditions, which are that he should be aware of the situation and observing the fast willingly. 

Thus it is known that you do not have to make up these fasts.  

And Allaah knows best.

He had intercourse with his wife, thinking that dawn had not yet broken

I had intercourse with my wife and I did not know that the adhaan for Fajr had already been given. I did not know that and I thought that the adhaan would be given a few minutes after five. After that I realized that the adhaan is given at quarter to five. What is the solution? Do I have to offer kafaarah, both me and my wife, knowing that we both did that willingly, and we had arrived from a journey 24 hours before and we did not yet know the timings of the prayer and we were taken by surprise when Ramadaan was announced the morning after our arrival?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

If the matter is as you describe, then you do not have to do anything, because the one who does something that breaks the fast thinking that dawn has not yet broken, then he finds out that it had broken, does not have to make it up, according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, regardless of whether the thing that breaks the fast is food, drink or intercourse. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: I have to point out that the things that break the fast, intercourse, food and drink, only break a person’s fast if three conditions are met:  

1 – That he knows about that. If he does not know then his fast is not broken, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):   

“And there is no sin on you concerning that in which you made a mistake,  except in regard to what your hearts deliberately intend. And Allaah is Ever Oft‑Forgiving, Most Merciful”

[al-Ahzaab 33:5] 

“Our Lord! Punish us not if we forget or fall into error”

[al-Baqarah 2:286] and Allaah says: “I will do that.”

And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “My ummah is forgiven for what it does by mistake, forgets or is forced to do.” The one who is ignorant is making a mistake, even if he knows what he is doing. If he does something that breaks the fast out of ignorance, he does not have to do anything and his fast is complete and valid, whether he was ignorant of the ruling or of the time.  

An example of being ignorant of the ruling is if he consumes something that breaks the fast thinking that it does not break the fast, such as if he is treated with cupping, thinking that cupping does not break the fast. We say: Your fast is valid and you do not have to do anything. 

And example of being ignorant of the time is if he thinks that dawn has not yet broken, so he eats. His fast is valid. 

2 – That he remembers that he is fasting; if he forgets then it does not break the fast. 

3 – That he does it willingly. If he does not do it willingly then he does not break his fast. 

End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (19/280). 

The Shaykh (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: There is a man who is newly married and he had intercourse with his wife at the end of the night, thinking that it was still night, then the iqaamah was given. What do you think? Does he have to do anything? 

He replied: No, he does not have to do anything; there is no sin on him and he does not have to offer expiation or make up that day, because Allaah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“So now have sexual relations with them and seek that which Allaah has ordained for you (offspring), and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night)”

[al-Baqarah 2:187] 

So these three things are all the same: intimacy with one’s wife, eating and drinking, and there is no evidence to suggest any distinction between them.  They are all things that are not allowed when fasting, and if they happen due to ignorance or forgetfulness, it does not matter. End quote from al-Liqa’ al-Shahri. 

Thus it is clear that you do not have to do anything, you do not have to make up that fast or offer expiation. This applies if you fasted on that day. But if you did not fast thinking that the fast had been invalidated because of intercourse, then all you have to do is make up that day. 

And Allaah knows best.

If a fasting person wakes up and finds food in his mouth

I used to smoke but Alhamdulillah I gave up smoking. The problem is that whenever I feel that I desire smoking I chew a part of the cigarette to kill this desire, but it did not help. Anyway, I was chewing it in a night of Ramadaan and I fell asleep while it was in my mouth, I woke up after Fajr and washed my mouth. Did this invalidate my fasting that day?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If dawn breaks and there is something in the fasting person’s mouth and he spits it out, but he does not willingly swallow any of it, then his fast is valid. Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Minhaaj: If dawn breaks and there is some food in his mouth and he spits it out, his fast is valid. It says in Mughni al-Muhtaaj (2/161): Because if he put it in his mouth during the day it would not invalidate the fast, so it is more likely that this is the case if he put it in his mouth at night. But if he swallows any part of it deliberately, then he had broken his fast. End quote. 

Secondly: 

Doctors and researchers have warned against chewing tobacco, and they have stated that this is not regarded as a safe alternative to smoking; rather it is more dangerous and more harmful to the body than smoking in some ways, because it exposes the body to the risk of cancer more than smoking. 

What the one who has decided to give up smoking should do is to give it up completely and seek the help of Allaah with regard to that. It has been proven by experiments and experience that it is possible to stop smoking and that giving it up is easy. What matters is to repent sincerely and have strong willpower. 

We ask Allaah to help and guide us and you. 

And Allaah knows best.

The meaning of the aayah “then complete your Sawm (fast) till the nightfall”

I was wondering when I read in the quran in sura albaqara in verse 187 that allah say " and continue your fasting until the night " and most of us break our fast and the mughrib time . could u explian this situation forme please.

Praise be to Allaah.

There is no contradiction between this aayah and the fact that the fast is broken after the sun sets, because night begins when the sun sets. The beginning of the night is sunset, and the end of the night is when dawn comes. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “When night comes, and day ends, and the sun has set, then let the fasting person break his fast.” What the hadeeth means is that when the sun has set, night has begun and day has ended, and at that time it becomes permissible for the fasting person to break his fast. See Sharh Muslim by al-Nawawi (7/209). 

And Allaah knows best. May Allaah bless our Prophet Muhammad.

Being intimate with one's wife when fasting without having intercourse

What is the ruling concerning the one who slept with him wife during the day in Ramadaan without wearing any clothes and the genitals touched one another but there was no penetration?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If there is no penetration and no emission of maniy (semen), then your fast is valid and you do not have to do anything else. 

As for madhiy (prostatic fluid), emission thereof does not invalidate the fast according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, which is the view of Abu Haneefah and al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah have mercy on them). See also question no.37715. 

The fasting person may play with his wife, kiss her, embrace her and touch her, if he is certain that he will not ejaculate or have intercourse. See question no. 49614. 

And Allaah knows best.

Being intimate with one's wife when fasting without having intercourse

What is the ruling concerning the one who slept with him wife during the day in Ramadaan without wearing any clothes and the genitals touched one another but there was no penetration?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If there is no penetration and no emission of maniy (semen), then your fast is valid and you do not have to do anything else. 

As for madhiy (prostatic fluid), emission thereof does not invalidate the fast according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, which is the view of Abu Haneefah and al-Shaafa’i (may Allaah have mercy on them). See also question no.37715. 

The fasting person may play with his wife, kiss her, embrace her and touch her, if he is certain that he will not ejaculate or have intercourse. See question no. 49614. 

And Allaah knows best.

The one who cannot help vomiting does not have to make up the fast

I fasted six days of Shawwaal and the fifth day was a Friday. At the time of Fajr prayer I unintentionally vomited what I had eaten, but I completed my fast and fasted the Saturday too. Is my fast valid or invalid?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Your fast is valid, and the fact that you vomited does not matter, because if a person vomits unintentionally and without meaning to do so, his fast is still valid. But the one who vomits intentionally has broken his fast, because of the report narrated by al-Tirmidhi (720) from Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him), that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The one who cannot help vomiting does not have to make up the fast, but the one who vomits deliberately has to make it up.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi. 

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Mughni (3/23): The one who makes himself vomit has to make up (the fast), but the one who cannot help vomiting does not have to do anything. 

What is meant by making oneself vomit is vomiting deliberately, and what is meant by “cannot help vomiting” is when it happens involuntarily. The one who makes himself vomit has to make up the fast because his fast has been spoiled, but the one who cannot help it does not have to do anything. This is the view of the majority of scholars. Al-Khattaabi said: I do not know of any difference of opinion among the scholars. End quote. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about vomiting in Ramadaan – does it break the fast?  

He replied: If a person vomits deliberately then it breaks the fast, but if he vomits unintentionally then it does not break the fast. The evidence for that is the hadeeth of Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with him) … and he quoted the hadeeth that we have quoted above. 

If you could not help vomiting, then you did not break the fast. If a person feels that his stomach is queasy and that its contents will be expelled, do we say that you have to try to stop it? No. Or that you have to make it happen? No. Rather we say: Take a middle approach – do not make yourself vomit and do not try to stop it, because if you make yourself vomit you will break the fast, but if you try to stop it, that will harm you. So leave it, and if it comes out without any action on your part, then it will not matter and that will not break your fast. End quote from Fataawa al-Siyaam, p. 231.Its the responsibility of every Moslem in learning quran and read tajweed and we also have to teach our kids Quran and not only the Quran teaching we should let then be aware of the basic of Islam and why it was reviled you bet it was vituperated and truth teaching of holy Quran and with tajweed quran we read Quran we can understand better all the replies that are asked if we study koran from a qualified Quran tutor he will let you know verity heart of Islam and why koran was reviled for it we should gain the ability of the Book with there translation and the context of when those verses were reviled and why and that is only potential when we keep on with not simply learning quran for beginners but gaining the information of Quran tafseer and one query that we all is necessary to ask our self that why we all are here in the world to do good acts or to do bad human action to promote correct or to promote incorrect and will we be answerable to any one after this life of not then the enquiry remains the exact same that the reasons why we are here in the world but if yes then whom we have to reply is there any Lord All these response exist when we go deep in to the Quran education do Quran reading and the so let us unite hands to full fill our responsibility. We all must do quran memorization and listen to quran online when ever we have time to stay in touch

Marrying a Christian woman on paper in order to have the right to reside in a kaafir country

Is it permissible to marry an american christian woman just to get the green card from her, without living, or being alone with here (just on the paper). My neya: is to do that so I can visit and help my parents back in my country, and be able to work with my degree as( a Computer Programmer).

Praise be to Allaah and peace be upon the Messenger of Allaah.

 We put this question to Shaykh al-‘Allaamah ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz, who responded: “It is not one of the purposes of marriage according to Islamic sharee’ah to marry for the purpose of gaining residency rights and then to get divorced. It seems to me that this is not permitted.”

 Moreover, marrying a Christian woman on paper only is a kind of cheating these kaafirs, and this is not permitted. Allaah does not approve of wrongdoing even to kaafirs. And Allaah knows best.

A wife refusing her husband a co-wife

Is there any ruling that says in a marraige contract that a wife can refuse her husband a co-wife?

Praise be to Allaah.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in his book Al-Mughni:

“If he married her on the condition that he should not make her move from her house or her city, then this condition is valid, because it was reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: ‘The most deserving of conditions to be fulfilled are those by means of which sexual intercourse becomes permissible for you.’ If he married her on the condition that he will not marry another wife, then she has the right to leave him if he does take another wife.” In conclusion, then, the conditions of the marriage contract are divided into three types, one of which must be adhered to, which is of benefit to the wife, such as her being able to stipulate that he cannot make her move from her house or city, or travel with him, or take another wife or a concubine. He has to adhere to these conditions, and if he does not, then she has the right to annul the marriage.” (Al-Mughni by Ibn Qudaamah, part 7, Kitaab al-Nikaah).

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked this question and he replied in Al-Fataawa al-Kubra:

“Question: a man married a woman and she stipulated that he should not take another wife or make her move from her house, and that she could stay with her mother, so he married her on this basis. Does he have to adhere to this, and if he goes against these conditions, does his wife have the right to annul the marriage or not?

Answer: yes, these conditions and similar ones are valid according to the madhhab of Imaam Ahmad and other scholars among the Sahaabah and Taabi’een, such as ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab, ‘Amr ibn al-‘Aas, Shurayh al-Qaadi, al-Oozaa’i and Ishaaq. According to the madhhab of Maalik, the condition states that if he marries another wife, (the first wife) has the choice of what to do, and this is a valid condition. The woman has the right to leave him in this case. This is similar to the idea in the Madhhab of Imaam Ahmad. The basis for this is the hadeeth narrated by (al-Bukhaari and Muslim) in al-Saheehayn from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): ‘The most deserving of conditions to be fulfilled are those by means of which sexual intercourse becomes permissible for you.’ ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab said: ‘Rights are in accordance with conditions.’ The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) dictated that the conditions which make sexual intercourse permissible are more deserving of fulfilment than others. This is the ruling on conditions of this nature.”

Keeping Marriage Concealed and getting remarried to the same person in front of parents?

I am a 27 year old Muslim. I have liked a Muslim girl for the past 10 years. I told my parents about my likeness towards her and wanted them to ask for her hand in her marriage. They completely refused since she had a different family back ground. For almost 8 years I tried to convince my parents for the girl I liked but they never seemed to agree. I always could never decide between my parents and the person I loved. Finally nine months ago I got married to her with her parents consent but without my parents knowledge. They still do not know about my marriage, but recently they suddenly had a change of hearts for my wife. They have developed the liking toward her not knowing that she is my wife. They want us to get married now not knowing that we are married. I want to tell them about my marriage but my father is a heart patient and I am not sure how he would take it after I break the news.
I wanted to know if it is valid that I still keep my first marriage hidden from my parents and just get remarried to my wife. Please Comment.
May Allah guides us All to the right path.

Praise be to Allaah.

We put the following question to Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen:

One of the Sunnahs with regard to marriage is that it should be announced publicly, with beating on the daff or hand-drum (i.e., celebrations), so as to distinguish it from fornication, which usually happens in secret. If the marriage contract has been drawn up in accordance with all the requisite conditions, then it is valid even if the family does not accept it. The issue of kafaa’ah or compatibility has to do with religious commitment, as Allaah has explained in His Book. A Muslim man can marry a Muslim woman, or a woman of the People of the Book (Jews and Christians) on the condition that she is chaste, but he is not permitted to marry a mushrikah (polytheist woman) or a zaaniyah (woman who commits adultery or fornication). He should, however, try to find a woman who is strongly committed to Islam. A Muslim woman is not permitted to marry anyone except a Muslim man. A man of the People of the Book does not qualify in terms of compatibility with her, and she should look for someone who is known among the Muslims to be committed to Islam and of good character.

With regard to the situation described in the question, we may note the following points:

The husband does not have to divorce his wife if his father asks him to do so.

The father’s rights are great indeed, and good treatment of one's family is a duty. If your father is suffering from heart disease, it is better if he does not know about this marriage. It is unlikely that his attitude has changed because it is based on the class/caste system and it is not easy for seniors to change their beliefs.

You have to make sure you understand your family’s current attitude and to what extent they are prepared to accept your marriage to this woman. Perhaps they have heard that she has got married, and they think that she has married someone else, so they want to make you feel better (by saying they would accept her because she now seems to be safely out of the picture). Or perhaps they have heard that she has got married to you and they want to hear about it from you. Once you are sure that they have changed their attitude for real, there is nothing to stop you asking for permission from them and from your father to get married. If they give you permission, then this is what you want; if they do not, then just stay as you are now, so that no bad consequences will come to them as a result of them knowing about your marriage.

As far as repeating your marriage contract is concerned, we put this question to the Mufti Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Baaz, who replied with the conclusion that if the first contract met all the requisite conditions, and there are no impediments, then it is a valid contract. It should not be repeated lest that open the way to playing about with it. You should strive to please your family in every way you can and tell them that the matter has been concluded in an appropriate fashion. If there is genuine cause to fear for your father’s life, then it could be said that repeating the contract could be done on the grounds of necessity. And Allaah knows best.

Marriage contract: verbal or written?

Can the marriage contract be a verbal contract or must it be in writing ?

Praise be to Allaah.

Writing down the contracts and agreements that people make among themselves is a way of confirming and formalizing them, but it is not a condition for the validity of the contract. The marriage contract may be made verbally by means of an offer on the part of the bride’s wali or guardian (e.g. “I marry my daughter to you”) and acceptance on the part of the groom (e.g. “I accept”). Writing it down is not a condition, but it does serve to document and confirm the contract, which is a good thing, especially nowadays. And Allaah is the source of help.

Conditions for valid marriage contract

What is the correct Islamic procedure for a marriage ceremony, I mean if two Muslims are married (legally) without the presence of a religious "person" (like imam etc.), does that mean the marriage is non-existent in terms of Islam?

All praise is due to Allaah. A marriage contract is valid in Islam if the following conditions are met, even if the marriage does not take place in a court, or in the presence of a Judge or the Imaam of the masjid. In addition, it does not need to be written. The waliy (guardian) of the girl has accepted the proposal by saying, for example, "I marry you my daughter", and the one who proposed has replied, for example, by " I accept," or "I am satisfied" (i.e. with his acceptance). This takes place in the presence of two witnesses The woman is legally eligible to marry the man according to Islamic shari'ah (that is she is not a Mahram of the proposer [those to whom the proposer is forbidden to marry. etc.]) Allah knows best.